PNM300 Question # 1 Mr. Jones has been diagnosed with

PNM300 Question # 1 Mr. Jones has been diagnosed with a seizure disorder. The doctor has ordered Valproic Acid 500mg BID for control. Mr. Jones is reluctant to take the medication knowing that patients are generally placed on antiepileptic medications for life. You explain to him that this medication works by: a. Blocking histamine receptors in the neuronal pathways. b. Increasing tone which accelerates the speed of electrical activity. c. Stabilizing neuronal membranes to limit the speed of activity d. Inhibiting the action of acetylcholine. uestion # 2 Hypothyroidism occurs when the pituitary gland is dysfunctional and does not secrete TSH is referred as a. Primary hypothyroidism b. Secondary hypothyroidism. c. Tertiary hypothyroidism d. Quaternary hypothyroidism 3 Question # 3 Mr. Charles diagnosed with hypertension a few months ago has attempted to control his blood pressure without using pharmacological means. He has been unsuccessful and the doctor has subsequently ordered a hypertensive medication. All of the following drug classifications can be used to manage acute hypertension except: a. Calcium Channel Blockers. b. Beta Adrenergic Antagonists. c. HMG-CoA Reductase Inhibitors d. ACE Inhibitors. Question # 4 Sulfonylureas stimulate insulin secretion from the beta cells of the pancreas. An example of a Sulfonylurea is: a. Metformin (Glucophage). b. Diabeta (Glyburide) c. Ondansetrone. d. Provera. Question # 5 Which of the following is an expected outcome associated with the administration of digoxin? a. Increased heart rate. b. Decreased heart rate c. Decreased urinary output. d. Increased respiratory rate. Question # 6 An antileukotriene medication example is a. Intal (cromolyn) b. Theophylline (xanthine) c. Pulmicort d. Singulair. Question # 7 Which drug may be used early in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease but eventually loses effectiveness and must be replaced by another agent? a. Amantadine b. Levodopa. c. Depakane d. Glyburide Question # 8 Which is not a common side effect of nitroglycerine? a. Flushing. b. Headaches. c. Blurred vision d. Hypotension. Question # 9 Which of the following nitrate preparations or dosage forms has the longest duration of action? a. Sublingual nitroglycerine. b. Oral isosorbide dinitrate. c. Sublingual isosorbide dinitrate. d. Transdermal nitroglycerine patch 10 Question # 10 For which of the following side effects will the nurse check the laboratory values of a client who has been started on Furosemide (Lasix)? a. Hypokalemia b. Hyperkalemia. c. Hyperchloremia. d. Hypophosphatemia. Question # 11 One of the most important enzymes responsible for the metabolism of drugs is: a. Alpha-Acid Glycoprotein. b. Albumin. c. Cytochrome P-450 d. Protease. Question # 12 Proton Pump Inhibitors (PPI) primarily work by: a. Coating the stomach to prevent erosion b. Neutralize stomach acid c. Blockage of secretions from parietal cells. d. Suppress volume and acidity in the stomach Question # 13 Androgen inhibitor which is teratogenic in pregnant women and should not be handled because of the possibility of topical absorption with risk to the developing fetus called a. finasteride b. danazol. c. progesterone. d. testosterone. Question # 14 Mrs. Clark was given a dose of Streptokinase post an MI. The main reason for giving Streptokinase is: a. To prevent ischemia and permanent muscle damage. b. To prevent lyses of fibrin c. To reduce blood viscosity d. To prevent platelet aggregation and accumulation Question # 15 Narcotic antitussives act by: a. Anesthetizing the stretch receptors in the medulla. b. Reducing the cough at its source in the respiratory passages. c. Acting peripherally in the pleura. d. Suppressing the cough reflex by acting directly on the cough center in the brain Question # 16 The drug used in the treatment of diabetes insipidus is: a. Adalat. b. Desmopressin c. Pitocin. d. Somatropin. Question # 17 Vasodilators reduce both systolic and diastolic blood pressure through: a. Competition with alpha-adrenergic receptor sites. b. Increasing peripheral vascular resistance. c. Increased diuresis. d. Direct relaxation of vascular smooth muscle Question # 18 Benzodiazepines are used clinically for: a. Anticonvulsants, antianxiety agents, and sedative/hypnotics. b. Antianxiety agents, anticholinergics, and beta blockers c. Sedative/hypnotics, anticonvulsants, and antihypertensives d. Cholestyramine binders, anticonvulsants, and sedatives/hypnotics Question # 19 The most common adverse reactions with oral hypoglycemic agents are: a. GI symptoms b. Allergy. c. High blood pressure. d. Low blood pressure. Question # 22 The fastest acting insulin is: a. Regular insulin. b. Lantus. c. Humulin N. d. Lispro Question # 23 An example of a non-sedating antihistamine is: a. Benadryl b. Gravol c. Claritin. d. Chlorpheniramine Question # 24 Nasal decongestants: a. Act to suppress the cough reflex b. Initially increase congestion and stuffiness c. Initially shrink congested mucous membranes. d. Protect by interfering with the brain’s message to the congestant center Question # 25 The nurse plans to incorporate in client teaching about newly ordered mineralocorticoids. What is the pharmacological action for this drug? a. Anti-inflammatory effects. b. Maintenance of blood pressure. c. Fat, carbohydrate, and protein metabolism. d. Reabsorption of sodium in the renal distal tubules Question # 26 Antacids act by: a. Decreasing the volume of hydrochloric acid b. Neutralizing the hydrochloric acid. c. Breaking up air bubbles in the stomach d. Alter the acid base and/or electrolyte levels Question # 27 Which of the following conditions is an indication for a central nervous system (CNS) stimulant drug? a. Insomnia b. Depression c. Appetite enhancement d. Appetite suppression. Question # 28 Which of the following is the proper notation of the dose of the drug ordered? a. digoxin .175 mg. b. digoxin .1750 mg. c. digoxin 0.175 mg d. digoxin 0.1750 mg. Question # 29 Which of the following stimulates insulin secretion from the beta cells of the pancreas, thus increasing insulin levels? a. Metformin. b. Glyburide c. Insulin. d. Glucagon. Question # 30 Alzheimer’s is due to a. decrease of dopamine. b. decrease of acetylcholine c. increase of dopamine. d. increase of acetylcholine. Question # 31 The desired effects of cholinergic drugs come from stimulation of which receptors? a. Muscarinic b. Nicotinic. c. Cholinergic d. Ganglionic Question # 32 Muromonab-CD3 is the only agent indicated for : a. Reversal of organ rejection b. Pretreatment prior to organ donation. c. Prevention of organ rejection. d. To stimulate immunity. Questions # 33 Question # 34 The best tolerated drug to be cardio protective after Myocardial Infarction is a. Theophilline b. Metoprolol. c. Donepezil d. Rivastigmine Question # 35 Hyperosmotic laxatives increase fecal water content, cause bowel distention, and evacuation. Which drug is classified as an hyperosmotic agent? a. Keopectate b. Polyethylene glycol. c. Simethicone d. Docusate sodium Question # 36 Your patient has been placed on inhaled corticosteroids for maintenance of asthma control. You are preparing him for discharge what important health teaching should you discuss with the patient? a. Fatigue and hypotension b. SOB and peripheral dilation c. Oral candidiasis and dry mouth. d. Headache and tachycardia Question # 37 When a patient is taking an adrenergic drug, you would expect to see which of the following effects? a. Increased heart rate b. Bronchial constriction. c. Peripheral vasodilation. d. Increased intestinal peristalsis. Question # 38 The nurse is preparing to give IV colloid fluids to a patient with dehydration. She is aware that all of the following are true regarding colloids except? a. They are very expensive and their use is restricted b. Albumin is an example of colloids c. Cystralloids solutions are superior to colloid solutions. d. They move fluid from the interstitial compartment to the plasma Question # 39 Most serious side effect of beta blockers is Peripheral Vasodilation which causes a. Hypertension. b. Hypotension c. Headache. d. Blurred vision. Question # 40 The drug category which is generally the first line of antihypertensive agents to be used for stage 1 hypertension is called a. Diuretics. b. Adrenergic agents c. Calcium channel blockers (CCBs) d. Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors Question # 41 Which drugs are used in Parkinson’s disease because they decrease muscle rigidity, muscle spasms, and muscle tremors. a. Adrenergic gents b. Adrenergic-blocking agents c. Cholinergic agents d. Anticholinergic drugs. Question # 42 When a patient is taking an adrenergic drug, you would expect to see which of the following effects? a. Peripheral vasodilation. b. Bronchial constriction. c. Increased heart rate d. Increased intestinal peristalsis. Question # 43 While assessing a 73-year-old patient, you determine that she is experiencing polypharmacy. What is this most likely to indicate? a. She is addicted to several drugs. b. She takes drugs for one illness several times a day. c. She takes multiple drugs for several different illnesses d. She risks problems only if she also takes OTC preparations. Question # 44 You are working during a very busy evening shift, and the physician has just hurriedly given you a list of orders over the telephone. What would be the best way to avoid medication errors? a. Recopy the orders neatly on the order sheet. b. Consult with the pharmacist for clarification. c. Abbreviate dosages and products to save time. d. Repeat the verbal orders and spell the drug names aloud Question # 45 The nurse is ordered to administer a drug enteral. Which would be the correct route? a. Intravenously b. Intramuscular c. Subcutaneously d. Orally. 46 Question # 46 When a client is receiving diuretic therapy, which of the following would best reflect the client’s fluid volume status? a. Intake, output, and daily weight. b. Blood pressure and pulse c. Serum potassium and sodium levels d. Measurements of abdominal girth and calf circumference 47 Question # 47 A client who is taking sublingual nitroglycerin is reporting flushing of the face and headaches. The nurse explains that a. this is a general response to chest pain for patients diagnosed with angina. b. smoking could have precipitated these symptoms. c. these symptoms are not related to the drug nitroglycerin and you must call the physician. d. these symptoms are related to the nitroglycerin Questions 48 How does aspirin prolong the bleeding time? a. It interferes with the manufacture of prothrombin. b. It inhibits the aggregation of platelets c. It produces a direct action on the liver. d. It increases the manufacture of platelets. Practice Questions 1. When a client is receiving diuretic therapy, which of the following would best reflect the client’s fluid volume status? a. Intake, output, and daily weight b. Blood pressure and “pulse”. c. Serum potassium and sodium levels. d. Measurements of abdominal girth and calf circumference. 2. When administering phenytoin (Dilantin) intravenously, which of the following must the nurse remember? a. Normal saline is the only solution to be used with phenytoin b. Intravenous (IV) doses must be given rapidly to raise blood levels quickly. c. The patient should be monitored closely for tachycardia and increased blood pressure. d. Phenytoin can be combined with other solutions without fear of precipitate formation. 3. A patient has a 9-year history of a seizure disorder that has been managed well with phenytoin therapy. He is to receive nothing by mouth (NPO) because he has surgery in the morning. What should the nurse do about his morning dose of phenytoin? a. Give the same dose intravenously b. Give the morning dose with a small sip of water c. Contact the physician for another dosage form of the medication. d. Notify the operating room that the medication has been withheld 4. Sulfonylureas stimulate insulin secretion from the beta cells of the pancreas. An example of a Sulfonylurea is: a. Metformin (Glucophage). b. Diabeta (Glyburide) c. Ondansetrone. d. Provera. 5. A patient who has been newly diagnosed with vertigo will be taking an antihistamine antiemetic drug. What is important for the nurse to emphasize when teaching the patient about this drug? a. Doses may be skipped if she is feeling well. b. The patient should avoid driving because of possible drowsiness c. The patient may experience transient taste problems. d. It is safe to take the dose with a glass of wine in the evening to help settle her stomach. 6. The pharmacodynamics of a drug can be defined as a. how the body works on the drug b. how the drug works on the body. c. how the drug tastes d. how much of the drug is actually cytotoxic to the body 7. which drug is administered via a transdermal patch to prevent motion sickness? a. meclizine (Bonamine) b. prochlorperazine (Stemetil) c. scopolamine (Transderm-V). d. metoclopramide (Apo-Metoclop) 8. A patient asks why calcium carbonate (Tums) is not often used as an antacid. What is the nurse’s best explanation to the patient? a. Its use may result in kidney stones b. It causes decreased gastric acid production. c. It often causes severe constipation. d. It may result in fluid retention and edema. 9. A patient has been taking cimetidine for hyperacidity but says that the medication has not been effective. Which of the following may be influencing the effectiveness of this drug? a. The patient is taking the cimetidine with meals. b. The patient is smoking two packs of cigarettes a day c. The patient is avoiding caffeine, alcohol, and harsh spices. d. The patient is taking an antacid 1 hour before or after the cimetidine dose. 10. Antacids containing magnesium should be used cautiously in patients with which condition? a. Peptic ulcer disease b. Renal failure. c. Hypertension d. Heart failure 11. Your patient has been placed on inhaled corticosteroids for maintenance of asthma control. You are preparing him for discharge what important health teaching should you discuss with the patient? a. Fatigue and hypotension b. SOB and peripheral dilation c. Oral candidiasis and dry mouth. d. Headache and tachycardia 12. ____________is the changes in mood that range from mania (abnormally pronounced emotions i.e.. a high) to depression (abnormally reduced emotions i.e.. a low) A. Affective Mood Disorder B. Childhood enuresis. C. Anxiety. D. Psychosis.

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