A 27-year-old woman presents with frequent headaches, galactorrhea, and amenorrhea.

A 27-year-old woman presents with frequent headaches, galactorrhea, and amenorrhea. MRI of the brain reveals a pituitary adenoma. What is the most appropriate initial treatment? Group of answer choices Dopamine agonists Surgery Radiation therapy Corticosteroids Flag question: Question 13 Question 13 1 pts An adult patient presents with tachycardia and nervousness. The patient is currently taking levothyroxine (Synthroid), 75 mcg daily. The nurse practitioner orders a thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and anticipates having to: Group of answer choices lower the dose to 50 mcg daily. add atenolol, 50 mg daily. raise the dose to 100 mcg daily. continue the same daily dose. Flag question: Question 14 Question 14 1 pts A patient has a 2 cm pituitary adenoma on MRI. Deficiency of one of the pituitary hormones can cause immediate hemodynamic instability and has a risk of death. Which is the most critical hormone deficiency to rule out? Group of answer choices FSH/LH ACTH

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