Question 2 Which of the following conditions at the atrioventricular node will cause a decrease i
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Question 2
Which of the following conditions at the atrioventricular node will cause a decrease in heart rate?
Increased calcium permeability
Increased norepinephrine levels
Decreased acetylcholine
Increased sodium permeability
Increased potassium permeability
Question 3
Which of the following is caused by acetylcholine?
Hyperpolarization of the sinoatrial node
Decreased permeability of the sinoatrial node to potassium ions
Increased heart rate
Increased permeability of the cardiac muscle to calcium ions
Depolarization of the atrioventricular node
Question 4
Which of the following is correct regarding sympathetic stimulation of the heart?
Releases norepinephrine at the sympathetic endings
Decreases excitability of the heart
Releases acetylcholine at the sympathetic endings
Decreases sinus nodal discharge rate
Decreases cardiac contractility
Question 5
Parasympathetic (vagal) nerve stimulation can cause ____________.
Increased transmission of impulses
Increased heart rate
Tachycardia
Decreased heart rate
Question 6
The ___________ functions as the pacemaker of the heart because of its faster discharge rate
Sinoatrial node
A-V bundle
Purkinje fibers
A-V node
Question 7
If the sinus node stops discharging, what is the expected heart rate (in beats per minute) if the ventricular Purkinje fibers take over as the cardiac pacemaker?
40-60
72-80
15-40
55-75
Question 8
When recording lead III on an electrocardiogram, where are the negative electrode(s) placed?
Right leg
Left arm and left leg
Left arm
Right arm and left leg
Question 9
From the AV bundle, the impulse goes into the ___________.
Purkinje fibers
Sinoatrial node
Internodal pathway
AV node
Question 10
The R-to-R distance in the ECG of a patient with tachycardia was measured to be 2.5 squares. The heart rate of the patient is calculated to be ____________.
300
120
200
400
Question 11
The Q-T interval represents _______________________
Ventricular relaxation
Ventricular contraction
Atrial flutter
Atrial contraction
Question 16
What is the delay between the sinoatrial node discharge and arrival of the action potential at the ventricular septum?
0.09 seconds
0.12 seconds
0.16 seconds
0.80 seconds
Question 18
The sympathetic nervous system/catecholamines, cause ____ in the resistance of the afferent arterioles and ______ in the resistance of the efferent arterioles resulting in ____ in the glomerular filtration rate during conditions such as severe hemorrhage
Increase, increase, decreased
Decrease, decrease, increase
Decrease, increase, increase
Increase, increase, increase
Decrease, decrease, Decrease,
Question 19
In a successful ventricular defibrillation invention, ventricular muscles resume coordinated contractions after a strong high-voltage electrical current brings all the ventricular muscles into a state of simultaneous refractoriness and quiescence for a few seconds
True
False
Question 20
Shift of the pacemaker from the sinus node to another place in the heart would result in which one of the following conditions.?
Aortic stenosis
Increased ventricular mass
Cardiac arrhythmia
Interventricular septal defect
Question 22
When the P-R interval is above 0.25 s but below 0.45 s and there is an intermittent block of impulses through the A-V node, this condition is indicative of ___________.
Third-degree block
First-degree block
Premature contractions
Second-degree block
Question 23
A 50-year-old man has been having fainting “spells” for about 2 weeks. During the fainting episodes, his electrocardiogram shows a ventricular beat of 25 per minute and 100 P waves per minute. After about 30 seconds of fainting, a normal sinus rhythm reoccurs. Which is likely diagnosis
Third-degree atrioventricular block/ Stokes Adams Syndrome
Atrial flutter
Second-degree atrioventricular block
Question 24
A 70-year-old woman had an electrocardiogram taken at her local hospital, and the diagnosis was atrial fibrillation. Which of the following is likely in someone with atrial fibrillation?
The atrial “a” wave is normal
Ventricular fibrillation normally accompanies atrial fibrillation
The rate of ventricular contraction is regular and slow
The atria have a smaller volume than normal
The P waves of the electrocardiogram are missing
Question 25
Hypoxic conditions can result in ______.
Atrial flutter
Atrial fibrillation
Cardiac arrest
Ventricular fibrillation
First-degree atrioventricular block
Question 26
A 50-year-old man has a blood pressure of 140/85 mm Hg and weighs 200 lbs. He reports that he is not feeling well. His electrocardiogram has no P waves, and he has a heart rate of 42 beats/min. What is his condition?
Third-degree heart block
Second-degree heart block
Sinus bradycardia
Sinoatrial heart block
First-degree heart block
Question 27
At the end of ventricular isovolumic contraction in the cardiac cycle, which of the following occurs?
Aortic and pulmonary valves close
Atrioventricular valves open
Aortic valves and pulmonary valves open
Mitral valve open
Question 28
The most important structures that prevent the backflow of blood into the atria during ventricular contraction are the __________.
Chordae tendinae
Pulmonary valve
Sinoatrial discharge
Purkinje fibers
Question 29
The trigger for SR release of calcium is opening of the ryanodine receptor by ________ in the cardiac muscle and ______ in the skeletal muscle.
change in calcium levels, voltage change
voltage change, sodium influx
potassium influx, sodium influx
Question 30
The most important kidney functions include: (Select All that Apply)
Excretion of metabolic
Regulation of acid base balance
Exertion of drugs and toxins
Gluconeogenesis
Triglyceride digestion
Question 31
Creatinine is a waste product of _______ metabolism while uric acid is a waste product from _______ metabolism
Muscle, nucleic acid
Protein, urea
Protein, nucleic acid
Protein, carbohydrate
Muscle, protein
Question 32
Erythrocyte production by the kidney is by the hormone __________.
Thyroid
Renin
Aldosterone
Adrenaline
Erythropoietin
Question 33
Select the sequential pathway of the blood through the arteries of the kidney
Interlobar-Renal artery – segmental artery – arcuate arteries – interlobular/cortico-radiate artery
Renal artery – interlobar artery- arcuate arteries – segmental artery – interlobar artery
Renal artery – segmental artery – interlobar artery – accurate arteries –
Renal artery – interlobar artery – segmental artery – accurate arteries – interlobular/cortico-radiate artery
Question 34
Describe the pathway of the formation and excretion of urine.
Papilla – ureter – bladder – urethra – renal pelvis – major calyx – minor calyx
Minor calyx – papilla – renal pelvis – major calyx – ureter – bladder – urethra
Renal pelvis – major calyx – minor calyx – papilla – ureter – bladder – urethra
Papilla – minor calyx – major calyx – renal pelvis – ureter – bladder – urethra
Question 35
70% of the nephrons in the kidney are juxtamedullary nephrons.
True
False
Question 36
The epithelial cells in the early portion of the distal tubules are the main site of action of ______ diuretics.
K+ sparing
Na+ channel inhibiting
Loop
Thiazide
Question 37
The drug of choice to treat excessive fluid retention in the lungs would be _____ diuretics.
Na+ channel inhibiting
K+ sparing
Thiazide
Loop
Question 38
Thrombosis or dehydration can lead to _____ failure.
Perirenal
Postrenal
Prerenal
Intrarenal
Question 39
______ failure can be caused by prostatic hypertrophy.
Perirenal
Prerenal
Intrarenal
Question 40
____________ is slow, insidious process of kidney destruction. It may go unrecognized for years as nephrons are destroyed and renal mass is reduced.
Acute renal injury
Post renal kidney injury
Chronic renal failure
Renal insufficiency
Question 41
Acute renal failure in adults is generally identified by oliguria (urine output <___ML/day). 200 ml/day 100 ml/day 400 ml/day 300 ml/day Question 42 When the kidneys have too few nephrons to excrete metabolic wastes and regulate fluid and electrolyte balance adequately, the client is said to have _____, the final stage of Chronic Renal Failure. End-stage renal disease (ESRD) Acute tubular necrosis Dialysis Renal insufficiency Question 43 Which diagnostic test would be monitored to evaluate glomerular filtration rate and renal function? Kidney biopsy Serum creatinine and BUN levels Urinalysis Na+ level Question 44 _____ Failure is caused by acute damage to renal tissue and nephrons or acute tubular necrosis: abrupt decline in tubular and glomerular function due to either prolonged ischemia and/or exposure to nephrotoxins. Prerenal Intrarenal Perirenal Question 45 Assuming steady-state conditions and that water and electrolyte intake remained constant, a 75% loss of nephrons due to chronic kidney disease would cause all of the following except: A large increase in plasma sodium concentration An increase in plasma creatinine to four times normal An increase in average volume excreted per remaining nephron to four times normal A significant increase in plasma phosphate concentration Question 46 Autoregulation of glomerular filtration rate allows it to stay at a relatively constant level despite large fluctuation in arterial pressure. True False Question 47 Hydrostatic pressure in the Bowman's capsule can drastically increase by _________. Kidney stones Tubular necrosis Urinary tract obstruction Tubular obstruction Question 48 Both primary and secondary aldosteronism can be treated with ______ diuretics. (Select all that apply.) Thiazide Loop Mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists Na+ channel inhibitors Question 49 40% 5% 30% 50% 20% Question 50 Decreasing number of nephrons will cause ____ and _____ of surviving nephrons resulting in further deterioration of the existing nephrons. Hypotrophy, vasoconstriction Hypertrophy, vasodilation Hypertrophy, vasoconstriction Hypotrophy, vasodilation SCIENCE HEALTH SCIENCE NURSING BIOL 5333
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