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Q 2
In the fifth month (middle trimester) fetus hematopoiesis is most active in which of the following?

Bone marrow
Yolk sac
Liver
Spleen
Q 3
A 65-year-old with persistent diarrhea is found to be severely underweight and to have a hematocrit of 26% with a mean corpuscular volume of 110 fl. Her peripheral blood smear shows oversized red blood cells with bizarre shapes. What is the most likely cause of another anemia?

Iron deficiency due to intestinal blood loss
Aplastic anemia
Gastrointestinal cancer
Deficiency of folate, and potentially also vitamin B12

Q 4
A 20-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 2-week history of diarrhea after a trip out of the country. He is admitted to the hospital for dehydration. His stool specimen is positive for parasitic eggs, which type of white blood cells would be elevated?

B lymphocytes
Eosinophils
T lymphocytes
Neutrophils
Monocytes

Q 5
What occurs after the activation of basophils?

Contraction of blood vessels
Increased capillary permeability
Decreased ameboid motion
Decreased diapedesis of neutrophils

Q 6
Neutrophils are capable of all of the following except which one?

Diapedesis
Phagocytosis of whole red blood cells
Ameboid motion
Production of proteolytic enzymes for digestion of bacteria

Q 7
Adhesion of white blood cells of the endothelium is:

Due to the inhibition of histamine release
Dependent on activation of integrins
Greater on the arterial than the venous side of the circulation
Due to the decrease in selectins

Q 8
basophils share functional and morphological characteristics with which one of the following?

Mast cells
Macrophages
Monocytes
Myelocytes

Q 9
Which phagocytic cell type leaves the bloodstream soon after numbers at sites of infection?

Basophil
Macrophage
Neutrophil
Eosinophil
B lymphocyte

Q 10
What occurs following the presentation of antigen by an infected cell?
Generation of antibodies
Activation of cytotoxic T cells
Increase in phagocytosis
Release of histamine by mast cells

Q 11
What causes the release of histamine in an allergic reaction?

The release of histamine by T helper cells
The free radical stimulation of endothelial cells
The binding of lgM to basophils
The binding of lgE to mast cells

Q 12
The marketing of an invading microbe with immunoglobulin G and complement to facilitate recognition is referred to as which of the following?

Phagolysosome fusion
Opsonization
Signal transduction
Chemokines

Q 13
Circulating antibodies are secreted mainly by which of the following?

Plasma cells
T helper lymphocytes
T killer lymphocytes
Dormant B lymphocytes
T suppressor lymphocytes

Q 14
Tolerance to one’s own body is due to which of the following?

Lack of antigen receptors on lymphocytes
Lack of antigens on cells
Activation of suppressor cells
Loss of lymphocyte clones reactive to native antigens

Q 15
In sensitized persons, immediate hypersensitivity responses are primarily the result of the liberation of vasoactive substances by the action of which the following?

Immunoglobulin A on basophils and mast cells
Immunoglobulin E on basophils and mast cells
Immunoglobulin A on neutrophils and eosinophils
Activated T lymphocytes on smooth muscle cells
Immunoglobin E on neutrophils and eosinophils

Q 16
Which subtype of lymphocytes produces lymphokines that direct their own cellular proliferation as well as the proliferation and differentiation of other immune cells?

Cytotoxic T cells
Natural killer cells
T hyper cells
B cells
Large granular lymphocytes

Q 17
A child who is being evaluated for an immune deficiency fails to make antibodies to tetanus toxoid or pneumococcal vaccine but shows normal cell-mediated immunity as indicated by a positive environmental antigen. This child has an abnormality of which cell lineage?

T cells
Monocytes/macrophages
B cells
Dendritic cells

Q 18
Erythroblastosis fetalis due to Rh incompatibility can, in the newborn, lead to all of the following conditions except:

Atrophy of the spleen and the liver
Jaundice due to increased circulating levels of bilirubin
Severe anemia
Mental retardation

Q 19
Which of the following transfusions will result in an immediate transfusion reaction?

Rh- blood to an AB Rh+ patient
AB Rh- blood to an AB Rh+ patient
B Rh- blood to a B Rh- patient
B Rh+ blood to an A Rh+ patient

Q 20
A previously healthy, blood type 0+, 22-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital for gastrointestinal bleeding. She has a hematocrit of 25%. She receives three units of blood. During administration of a fourth unit, she develops severe back pain, shortness of breath, fever, decreased blood pressure, and reddish brown urine. Which of the following is the most likely result of these findings?

Rh factor incompatibility
Elevated immunoglobulin E
Bacterial contamination of the blood
ABO incompatibility

Q 21
A 68-year-old man presents to the emergency department with brisk rectal bleeding requiring transfusion. His blood is type A. Potential donors of packed red blood cells could have the following blood types:

Type B only
Types A or O
Type O only
Types A or B
Type A only

Q 22
Hyperacute rejection is most likely to occur in the settings of which of the following?

Isograft
Autograft
Xenograft
Allograft

Q 23
Which of the following conditions would be expected to stimulate the material chemoreceptors?

Hyperventilation
Mild anemia
Normal breathing
Exposure to carbon monoxide
Hypoxia due to ascent to high altitude

Q 24
Which of the following would result in a decrease in nerve activity from the peripheral chemoreceptors?

A decrease in arterial blood pressure
A decrease in arterial oxygen content
A decrease in blood pH
An increase in arterial p02
Q 25
During moderate aerobic exercise, which of the following occurs?

Arterial p02 increases
Arterial pCO2 increases
Blood lactate level decreases
P02 and pC02 remain constant
Arterial pH increases

Q 26
Where are afferent (sensory) endings for the Hering -Breuer reflex located?

External intercostals
Diaphragm
Alveoli
Carotid arteries
Bronchi and bronchioles

Q 27
A stroke that destroys the respiratory area of the medulla would be expected to lead to which of the following?

Breathing would remain normal
Apneustic breathing
Immediate cessation of breathing
Rapid breathing (hyperpnea)

Q 28
Oxygen therapy is most beneficial in which of the following situations? (Lung function is normal.)

High altitude
Anemia
Cyanide poisoning
CO2 retention (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease)

Q 29
What is the most common cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?

Genetic
Occupational exposure
Restrictive lung diseases
Environmental exposure
Smoking
Q 30
A patient visits his physician for respiratory tract infection. The patient was subsequently admitted to the hospital with a fever. His lab valves showed very low white blood cell count. This patient is suffering from _____.

Acute leukemia
Lymphocytic leukemia
Myelogenous leukemia
Leukopenia

Q 31
During inflammation, the first responders are resident _____ which kill bacteria and engulf them, followed by the gradual accumulation of ____ within 1 hr and finally the arrival of _____ which accumulate after about a week and clean up the remaining bacteria and dead tissue.

Neutrophils, macrophages, monocytes/macrophages
Neutrophils, monocytes, macrophages
Monocytes, neutrophils, macrophages
Macrophages, neutrophils, monocytes/macrophages

Q 32
Which of these conditions occur in a normal individual living at a high altitude?

Leukemia
Hemophilia
Secondary polycythemia
Anemia

Q 33
Choose the correct match between the component of red blood cells and what happens to it when red blood cells are destroyed.

Home – reused to form a new hemoglobin molecule
Iron – mostly secreted in bile
None of these are correctly matched.
Bilirubin – stored in liver and spleen

Q 34
Mr. Smith has a bluish tint to his skin and is experiencing fatigue. His hematocrit levels are above normal. This could be due to ____

Aplastic anemia
Megaloblastic anemia
Polycythemia vera
Hemolytic anemia

Q 35
Failure to produce intrinsic factor to bind vitamin B-12 results in a condition known as ______.

Aplastic anemia
Polycythemia vera
Pernicious anemia
Hemolytic anemia

Q 36
Iron is a component of ______

Myoglobin
All answers are correct
Hemoglobin

Q 37
Diapedesis, amoeboid motion and chemotaxis are exhibited by ____________.

Basophils
Eosinophils
Lymphocytes
Macrophages

Q 38
A patient with COPD has to be monitored if they are given oxygen because their __________.

Ventilatory drive is mainly by low pC02
Ventilatory drive is mainly by low p02
Ventilatory drive is mainly by high pC02
Ventilatory drive is mainly by high p02

Q 39
Enzymes in the ______ consist of strong bactericidal agents

Cytoplasm
Phagosome
Endoplasmic reticulum
Vacuole

Q 40
The reticuloendothelial system consists of _______________.

Eosinophils
Lymphocytes
Basophils
Macrophages

Q 41
What is megaloblastic anemia best characterized by?

Lare irregularly shaped fragile red blood cells
Presence of antibodies against the red blood cells
Long sickle-shaped red blood cells
Small irregularly shaped hypochromic red blood cells

Q 42
Cyclosporine is an immunosuppressive drug given to avoid:

Inhibition of immune system
Inhibition of T cells
Inhibition of complement system
Inhibition of B cells

Q 43
While playing ball, a child fell and injured his head, producing a lesion in the respiratory center. As a result, he is hyperventilating. Twenty minutes after the accident, which set of findings would best fit his condition due to hypoventilation?

Low arterial pO2, high arterial pCO2
Low arterial pO2, low arterial pCO2
High arterial pO2, low arterial pCO2
High arterial pO2, high arterial pCO2

Q 44
A child has an involuntary breath-holding phase and loses consciousness. Thankfully, the resulting high ____ causes the _____ to be stimulated so that the child starts breathing normally and returns to consciousness.

C02, peripheral respiratory center
02, peripheral respiratory center
02, central respiratory center
C02, central respiratory center

Q 45
The epithelium of the respiratory airways is supplied with sensory nerve endings called pulmonary _____ receptors that are stimulated to initiate coughing and sneezing.

Stretch
Chemo-
Irritant
J

Q 46
The mechanism of action of peripheral chemoreceptors include stimulation of the ____ cell which result in the release of ____ and ____.

Glomus, acetylcholine, ATP
Glomerulus, calcium, ATP
kidney, acetylcholine, NTP
Glomus, potassium, calcium

Q 47
The main reason that respiratory compensation occurs in high altitudes is due to stimulation of which of the following?

The central chemoreceptors by high PC02
The peripheral chemoreceptors by low P02
The peripheral chemoreceptors by high H+
The central chemoreceptors by high P02
The central chemoreceptors by low H+
Q 48
The carotid bodies in the peripheral chemoreceptor system are connected to the ____ nerve.

Carotid
Aortic
Glossopharyngeal
Vagus and glossopharyngeal
Vagus

Q 49
Functions of the complement system include ____.

All answers are correct
Mast cell activation
Chemotaxis
Mast cell activation and opsonization

Q 50
Prevention of hemolytic disease of the newborn is achieved by providing ____ antibodies to the mother in late pregnancy.

anti-A and Anti-B
anti-B
anti-D
anti-A

Q 51
Which of these components are present in mature erythrocytes?

Nucleus
Mitochondria
Endoplasmic reticulum
Enzymes for metabolism
Q 2
In the fifth month (middle trimester) fetus hematopoiesis is most active in which of the following?